Bible Study: Dispensationalism - Sorting Fact from Fiction
by The Righterzpen
Summary: Is there some future age when God will reveal Himself to the Jews? When is the 1000 year reign? When was the tribulation? What does Matthew 24 mean? Let's delve into Dispensationalism; compare it to Scripture and separate the facts from fiction!
1. Chapter 1

**Dispensationalism - Sorting Fact from Fiction**

This "study" is a survey through the concepts Dispensationalism presents; although admittedly it's not particularly well organized. It "looks a little weird" and is "set up a little strangely" as a Bible study; because it began as a series of exchanges between myself and a Dispensationalist which pretty much took place as an exchange of Bible verses. This person would give me verses to support his position and I'd research these verses and give an answer. This compilation is the result of those exchanges.

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 **The first presupposition addressed here, is in regards to the concept held by Dispensationalism that the apostles did not understand because of the "dispensation" they were living in. (We will learn later that "dispensation" as defined by the Greek words, has nothing to do with time.)**

 **Although it's true, the apostles didn't understand much of what Jesus was talking about; that all changed when Pentecost occurred. From Pentecost to judgment day; the Holy Spirit has given us all we need to understand about Jesus Christ and what He accomplished from the Scriptures.**

 **So these first verses address what the apostles knew, when they knew it and why that changed: This negates the dispensationalist teaching that certain truths are hid from the "Jews" until some further future time.**

 **Luke 18:34** **-** They did not understand at the time (Jesus speaks to them of his death just as Passover is approaching) vs. 31 says they were heading to Jerusalem.

They come to understand "all things" when the Holy Spirit is poured out. "But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall **teach** **you** **all** **things** , and bring **all** **things** to **you** r remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto **you** " John 14:26

Luke picks this up in the beginning of his gospel. "…having had **perfect understanding of all things from the very first** to write unto you, most excellent Theophilus." Luke 1:3

"But the anointing which ye have received of him abides in **you** , and ye need not that any man **teach** **you** : but as the same anointing **teach** es **you** of **all** **things** , and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught **you** , ye shall abide in him." 1 John 2:27

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 _ **Acquisition of Understanding:**_

So right here we have the explanation of why they didn't understand at the time. They would come to understand from the point the Holy Spirit was poured out; because He was the One who'd teach them all God wanted them to know.

So from the point that the New Testament Scripture is completed, until the end of time; God has revealed through the Scripture all He wants us to know. Now how much understanding individuals gain depends on a lot of different factors. Some of those factors are purely "organic". A person with an IQ of 60 is not going to have the same capacity of acquisition of knowledge as someone with an IQ of 130.

Also greater understanding of Scripture comes with not just studying it; but also knowing how to study it. The Bible is its own dictionary, commentary and interpreter. What ever question someone has about the Scripture, they will find the answer in the Scripture. Now uncovering those answers may require digging; but the answers are there.

 _ **So how do you study the Bible?**_ By comparing Scripture with Scripture; line upon line, precept upon precept.

"Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts. For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little:" Isaiah 28:9-10

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 **Romans 16:24-26** **-** Now this passage is beneficial to quote because it's telling you what I just said:

"…Now to him who is of power to establish you…." Who is that "him" / (or rather Him)? That is the Holy Spirit. How is this done? "….according to my gospel and the preaching Jesus Christ…"

Now what's the next piece of informant he's telling us about this preaching of the gospel? "…according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret from since the world began…"

Is it still a secret? "…But **NOW** is made manifest…" **(No, it's not still a secret.)**

 _The Greek word "now" here means either something established in the recent past going forward, present tense, or present tense moving into the future. Which one of these is dependent on prefix or suffix used; but this word "now" always entails present tense contemporary to the point the passage was penned._

Now how is it made manifest? (He tells us in the next phrase.) "…by the Scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God…."

Now who is it made manifest too? (The next phrase tells us that!) "…..made manifest to **ALL NATIONS** …" This is not just "made manifest to the gentiles until the eyes of the Jews are opened" - No, it's made manifest to **"all nations".**

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 **1 Corinthians 2:7-8 -** Now this is a fascinating passage. I'd never noticed this before as related to the context of the pouring out of the Holy Spirit; but it explains why the Romans crucified Christ.

"… **we speak** _(present indicative active voice - means present tense is being currently accomplished by the subject of the verb tied to the time of speaking)_ **the wisdom of God upon the mystery, the hidden** _(perfect participle passive - perfect participle stresses the state brought about by the finished result of an action. Passive voice means the action was performed by someone other than the subject.)_ **which God ordained before the world unto our glory:"**

So what this verse means, is that Paul is speaking of a mystery that had been hidden; _**but is no longer hidden,**_ which God had ordained before the world unto our glory.

What had God ordained before the world? The mystery.

Why is it a glory unto us? It's a glory unto us, because God has chosen to reveal what had previously been hidden.

When did He do that? He did it at Pentecost. The agent of action of the revealing of that mystery is the Holy Spirit.

The next verse explains the result: **"Which none of the princes of this world knew because if they had known, they wouldn't have crucified the Lord of glory."**

This here verse gives one fascinating insight as to why the Holy Spirit was not poured out prior to the resurrection. Because if that mystery had been known by humanity because of the pouring forth of the Spirit, the atonement would have never happened because those appointed to the task would not have performed it.

Fascinating - absolutely fascinating!

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 **1 Corinthians 15:1-8** **-** The two things that jump out to me immediately about this passage are:

1\. the first of what Paul had received: Christ died for our sins, was buried and rose again.

2\. That all this happened "according to the Scriptures".

The mystery that was hidden was what was written in the Old Testament. Now verses 5 - 8; he gives a chronological order of who saw Jesus and when they saw him. He was first seen by Cephas.

Cephas in this reference, I don't believe is Peter. Cephas I believe is probably the cemetery caretaker's son. He would have been the first person to the grave and also the person who gave Jesus clothing. (Jesus would have emerged from the tomb naked.) Remember Mary Magdalene thought Jesus was the cemetery caretaker. Why would she have thought that? Probably because of what he was wearing. Mary Magdalene was the first of his public followers recorded to have seen Jesus.

"then he was seen of the 12" Peter is one of the 12, so therefore further evidence that I don't believe this Cephas is Peter. Thus also Mary Magdalene saw Jesus before any of the 12 did.

"seen of more than 500… James… all the apostles… last of all…me." (Paul)

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 **Galatians 2 & Ephesians 3** \- I'll address at the end, because you didn't give me specific verses.


	2. Chapter 2

_Now I've gone through and broken up the original "first chapter" posted, in hoping to try and find reasonable chunks of information that at least (hopefully) are related._

 _So my apologies to those who read the entire first chapter that these next two are a break down of that first chapter. The 4th chapter here will start the next set of references._

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 _ **Dispensation?**_

 **Colossians 1:25-29** \- First off, let's define what the word "dispensation" means in this passage. This word is the feminine version of two other Greek words put together which literally mean "house steward". So "dispensation" in this passage has nothing to do with time. There is no context of this Greek word to indicate that it is in any way related to time. It's not dispensation #1, #2, #3 etc.

Paul is describing himself as the female steward of a house. Who does the house belong to? (God - he says that right here in this passage.)

"… which is given to me toward you, to fulfill the word of God…."

Paul is describing himself here as one who's appointed by God to the stewardship of the household of God.

Now the next verse, Paul expounds upon what, or rather how he is the steward. He is appointed to minister unto them of what has been given to him; meaning the revelation of the mystery that had been hid from "the age" and from "the generation". (Neither "age" or "generation" is in the plural in the Greek. They are both "article and noun".)

Who is "the age" and "the generation"? This is a reference to all who'd received revelation from God (either via directly, or in the writing of the Old Testament) from the beginning of time to the birth of Christ. Note, it's one age and one generation.

"…but **NOW** is made manifest to his saints…" Again note; it's no longer hidden. But also note; it's not just made manifest to the saints who've come along from the point of Jesus's first coming to judgement day; but also of the saints who died prior to Christ's first coming. How do we know that? We know that from Mathew 24 and the book of Revelation. I'll explain this later.

Now the second half of verse 27 tells us what that mystery is: "…this mystery among the gentiles; **which is Christ in you the hope of glory**." Now how is "Christ in you the hope of glory" revealed. That again hearkens back to Pentecost because the indwelling of the Holy Spirit was what was promised to cleave the believer to Christ.

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 **1 Timothy 1:15-16** \- Paul restates a doctrinal truth. (Jesus came to save sinners; of whom I'm chief.) Then goes on to explain that by the example made of Paul, that Jesus shows forth Jesus's ability to be long suffering. And this is done so that those who would believe unto everlasting life can see the pattern of long-suffering God exhibits.

Now it doesn't appear to me that this passage is addressing Jews coming to believe particularly; since the passage never says that. Paul though refers to himself as "one born out of due time", wherewith we would use the term "miscarriage". He "came out dead" and was "resurrected" "after the fact". Paul became a believer post Pentecost. He describes himself as a blasphemer and persecutor having obtained mercy. The implication seeming to be - If God can have mercy on me, He can have mercy on anyone. And so therefore I am that example, as one "..of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of the Hebrews…" one of my own nation, dead in my trespass and sin as a persecutor of Christ.

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 **1 Timothy 2 -** Now from verses just looked at; Paul goes on to talk about praying for those in civil authority. This is good in the sight of God (because) "…who will all men to be saved and come to knowledge of the truth." That truth being "For there is one God and one mediator between God and men; the man Jesus, who gave himself a ransom for all to be testified in due time…"

Right here Paul is eluding to the fact that Jesus isn't just the Messiah for the Jews. He is the one mediator between God and men. There is one salvation plan that applies equally to everyone. Old Testament side of the cross or New Testament side of the cross; anyone who's coming, is only coming through the blood. And Jesus was to be "…testified in due time…"

Now this word "testified" means "to make known" or "be witnessed to" and involves the preacher's personal knowledge of what is being testified to. Now what is being testified to; Paul had just stated: (There is one God and Christ is the only mediator between God and man.)

"… in due time.." or "in his own time" - This "his own" making specific reference to "Who gave himself ransom". So what this phrase means is that the time Christ would be revealed as the mediator between the One God and man; was to occur within the time frame Christ walked the earth. The word "time" here does not simply mean a succession of space of elapsed minutes. It carries more the implication of the time frame of a certain opportunity.

The next verse Paul goes on to explain that he is "ordained an apostle…. a teacher to the gentiles in faith and verity." "Verity" here means: an unveiled reality manifested in the material world.

So what Paul is saying is; this here is the time that what was to be revealed is proven because we've witnessed it in the material world. (I.E. those who saw resurrected Jesus in the flesh; prior to ascending into heaven.)

The fact that it was witnessed in the material world, proved that the timing of those who would be melded from Jew and gentile into one body, was to occur in proximity of the life time of Christ. Remember Jesus told the disciples these things would come to pass in their lifetime. This excludes some future age where God is allegedly going to awaken a group of people (i.e. "Jews") who were blinded (allegedly in part until the fullness of the gentiles comes in and so all Israel shall be saved). I'll explain that passage in a minute.

* * *

 _ **Where'd the 1st Century Jews go?**_

Little history lesson first though! What happened to the people who were the genetic descendants of Judah and Benjamin who lived during the time Jesus walked the earth?

One of two things happened: (Remember the 10 tribes to the north were destroyed by the Assyrians before the Babylonian captivity.)

1\. They converted to Christianity and got out of the area.

2\. They were destroyed by the Roman army in the Roman / Jewish wars.

So, not only does the Scripture not support this dispensationalist notion of some future time of salvation for the Jews. There are literally no genetic descendants today of the tribes of Judah or Benjamin. Should this surprise us though? No it shouldn't, because Jesus told us this was going to happen. This was told to us in the parable of the cursing of the fig tree.

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References to "fig tree" is used about 40 times in the Bible. Most of these are in the Old Testament and if you look at all these references they have application to Israel.

For example: Judges 9 gives a parable of trees asking 4 different trees / plants to come be king over them.

1\. The olive tree - says no; for by me they honor God and man.

2\. The fig tree - says no; should I forsake my sweetness and good fruit?

3\. The vine - says no; my wine cheers God and man.

4\. The bramble - says; put your trust in my shadow, but if you don't, than the fire will come out of the bramble and devour the cedars of Lebanon.

So what do these trees represent?

Olive - Where in the New Testament do we see a reference to olive oil? In one parable, Jesus describes 5 foolish virgins who don't have enough oil for their lamps and their lamps go out. Other references are anointing oil poured on someone in preparation for what ever they're about to embark upon. One passage talks about being anointed with the oil of gladness from God and Revelation talks about exorbitant price for oil and wine. Oil is often a reference to the Holy Spirit.

Fig - The main passage in the New Testament is where Jesus curses the fig tree. He's looking for fruit because he's hungry. He does't find any fruit. It says "because the time of figs was not". Why was "the time of figs not"; because the time of figs had already passed. Going back into the Old Testament. The passages that talk about fig tree's fruit; fig is in the singular. The proverbial fig tree has only ever bore one fig. That fig is Christ. He is the "seed of Abraham" (again singular). Galatians 3:16

Vine - This one should be easy. What does wine represent? The blood of Christ; which cheers God and man.

Bramble - The bramble ends up ruling over them; if they trust in its shadow. Hebrews 10:1 - the law was a shadow of things to come. Hebrews 8:5 - talks about the high priest being a shadow of Christ. If they don't trust in the shadow; the fire consumes them. Those who are condemned to eternal damnation are judged by what? - the law.

So when the fig tree says: "shall I forsake my sweetness and good fruit"; do we have any indication from the words in this passage itself what this means? "Sweetness" means "ripe" and "good" actually means "moral". Now how is ripe fruit moral? But only from a parabolic perspective.

Now ironically, here's the catch. Did the "fig tree" (Israel) forsake its "fruit" (Christ)? The obvious answer to this is yes. Although the totality of the people did not forsake him; the "official statement" of the nation was yes; we do not want this man as our king.

So, just as was pointed out in the language in 1 Timothy 2 and Romans 16; the window of opportunity where Christ was revealed as the mediator between God and man was delivered unto "all nations" "in his own time".


	3. Chapter 3

_This segment is "bitty" because it's only addressing nebulous questions about two different books; but as related to how the true Israel of God and the true Church are basically the same entity. They are both the "Body of Christ"; comprised of all who were predestine to election from the foundations of the world, of every kindred, tongue, tribe and nation._

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 **Galatians 2** \- Now this passage is interesting because Paul is talking about a confrontation that took place between him and Peter over the law.

14 years have passed since (probably about the time of) Paul's conversion. Paul when he first became a believer, went up to Jerusalem to preach in the temple and they sought to kill him so he left. This is the point that he becomes the "apostle to the uncircumcised". And here is where it picks up with this confrontation between him and Peter that he speaks of in this passage.

So basically what happened is, when Peter came to Antioch; he ate with the gentiles. Yet when other believers who'd come out of Judaism show up; now all the sudden Peter is back to observing Jewish dietary laws.

So Paul's basic argument is: If you believe justification is by faith in Christ alone, reinstitution of "law" has made you a transgressor from faith in God. So, Peter if you continue in this; than basically you're a reprobate, is what Paul is saying.

Paul understood that the separating wall between Jew and gentile was being torn down and from that point forward, the two groups of people would become one body in Christ. This was a transition period where the Old Testament system was being dismantled. This is explained in Ephesians 2:

 **11** Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;

 **12** That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

 **13** But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.

 **14** For he is our peace, **who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us** ;

 **15** Having **abolished in his flesh** the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for **to make in himself of twain one new man** , so making peace;

 **16** And that **he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross,** having slain the enmity thereby:

 **17** And came and **preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh.**

 **18** For through him we **both have access by one Spirit unto the Father**.

 **19** Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellow citizens with the

saints, and of the household of God;

 **20** And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;

 **21 In whom all** the building fitly framed together grows unto an holy temple in the Lord:

 **22** In whom ye also are builded together for a habitation of God **through the Spirit**.

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 **Ephesians 3** \- Now this is a passage you wrote down that you wanted me to look at. There is very similar language that we see in the beginning of this passage as we see in Colossians. Yet, Ephesians 3 is an obvious continuation of Ephesians 2. Paul starts off "For this cause…" which hearkens back to what he just explained in Ephesians 2.

Verse 2 - again here. This word "dispensation" has nothing to do with a "time table". I'm not sure where or why it got that interpretation (other than Darby)? But Darby is wrong. There are 4 places in the King James that the word "dispensation" is used and in all four places; it's the same word as used in Colossians 1:25; which is a compound Greek word meaning "house steward".

Verse 3 and 4 - just like in Colossians he's talking about the mystery. Verse 4 tells us what the mystery is. The mystery is Christ.

Verse 5 - Tells us when that mystery is revealed. That mystery is revealed now; the agent of that revelation is the Holy Ghost.

 **6** That **the Gentiles should be fellow heirs, and of the same body** , and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:

 **7** Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power.

 **8** Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ;

 **9** And **to make all men see** what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:

 **10** To the intent that **now** unto the principalities and powers in heavenly places might be **known by the church** the manifold wisdom of God,

Now go back to Ephesians 1:10

"That in the house steward(ship) of the fullness of times…." This verse means "in the entire duration of times" (times is plural - which appears to have a specific meaning related to a historical timeline from Pentecost to Judgement Day.)


	4. Chapter 4

_This next segment is a little easier to follow because it was originally written to give its own context. So thus (hopefully) needs less explanation._

* * *

 **Bible References #2**

OK, before we get into Bible references: Why is this important? Why is it important to get the eschatology as correct as we can figure?

Primarily because of the command to go into all the world and preach the gospel. We are told to "preach the gospel to every creature". Mark 16:15 There is no distinction here saying - Oh well, you can give "Jews" a pass because God has some other plan for them. That's not what this passage says. It says to preach to every creature.

Jesus eludes to this too in John 17:21

 **20** Neither pray I for these alone, but for **them also which shall believe on me through their word;**

 **21** That they **all may be one** ; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that **they also may be one in us:** that **the world may believe** that thou hast sent me.

 **22** And the glory which thou gave me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:

So give the gospel to all because:

 **He that believes and is baptized shall be saved; but he who believes not shall be damned.** Mark 16:16

 **Zionism:**

Little historical background here. The late 18th century brought a religious revival to Europe. This was primarily in Britain and North America; but also affected the Germanic states (Germany wasn't a nation as yet.) more so than France and Italy.

As the 19th century came along; so did Darwin and his theories. One of the the effects of Darwinian evolutionary theory is what's called "Social Darwinism". Social Darwinism is the idea that there are superior cultures. This idea was very in vogue through the 19th century until about the end of WWII.

And since "The Great Awakening" which started in the middle of the 18th century and swept through Britain and northern Europe; "Jews" who were living in eastern Europe and moving into the Germanic states were also exposed to this religious revival, as well as Social Darwinism. Now many of Rabbinic Judaism converted to Christianity; some out of genuine conviction and others out of a desire to increase their social standing / and or this Darwinian notion of a superior culture.

And so through the 19th century; many Ashkenazi Jews living in Europe and the United States converted to Christianity. This created a "problem" for the Rabbis. They did not want to lose "Jewish numbers" to Christian conversion and this was the political imputes behind the idea of creating an Israeli state.

This "mass conversion" that took place over the course of the 19th and early 20th centuries can be proven genetically in that large numbers of Europeans and Americans of European ancestry, who do not claim Judaism as their religion, yet have Ashkenazi DNA. (My son Benjamin included.)

Now these rabbis had a couple of ideological issues in their way. The first and foremost being Christianity itself. These Christians preaching the gospel to Jews who come to believe in Christ. So basically to stop that from happening; they had to find a way to get around this Christian doctrine of preaching the gospel to everyone. So they invent an eschatological system that makes "Jews" different than anyone else. And so thus enters Darby and Scofield. Now the Scofield Reference Bible's copyright is owned by Oxford Press. Oxford Press is a Jewish publishing house.

Now the histories of Darby and Scofield? I know more about Scofield than I know about Darby. I'd have to do some research on Darby; but Scofield has ties to the Masons.

Scofield's financier for his Bible (George Bannerman Dealey) was a 33rd degree Mason. On top of this, the two men who "mentored" Schofield in the penning of the reference Bible (Westcott and Hort) were active in the occult.

B.F. Westcott and F.J.A Host were (respectively) an Anglican bishop and Oxford professor of divinity. They had started two different fraternal type groups; one called "Hermes" (Greek name for god of the underworld - i.e. Satan) which was well known in it's day for the intensity of homosexual relations between its members and the other listed as "the ghost society". Ghost Society had many British political figures among its ranks; one of which was Britain's future prime minister Arthur James Balfour. Balfour penned The Balfour Declaration; which was a response to a letter sent to him by Lord Rothschild. The declaration is addressed to Lord Rothschild.

Now if you don't know who the Rothschilds are; (the Jewish banking cabal) you got some historical research to do.

* * *

 **Now back to the Bible verses you wrote down:**

I'm going to jump back a little bit to the word _**"dispensation".**_

I'm coming back to this word because I found a few other places where it is used; although it is not translated into English as "dispensation". It's translated as "stewardship". The Strong's number is 3622 and its used 8 times in the New Testament.

 **Luke 16** \- _**"dispensation"**_ is used in a parable about an unfaithful servant. Now this parable is interesting because this servant is afraid that the Lord is going to take his stewardship _**(dispensation)**_ away. He is the steward of the house at current; but he's about to be replaced by someone else.

1\. And he said also unto his disciples, There was a certain rich man, which had a steward; and the same was accused unto him that he had wasted his goods.

 **2** And he called him, and said unto him, How is it that I hear this of thee? give an account of thy _**dispensation;**_ for thou mayest be no longer steward.

 **3** Then the steward said within himself, What shall I do? for my lord taketh away from me the _**dispensation:**_ I cannot dig; to beg I am ashamed.

 **4** I am resolved what to do, that, when I am put out of the _**dispensation**_ , they may receive me into their houses.

 **5** So he called every one of his lord's debtors unto him, and said unto the first, How much do you owe to my lord?

 **6** And he said, A hundred measures of oil. And he said unto him, Take your bill, and sit down quickly, and write fifty.

 **7** Then said he to another, And how much do you owe? And he said, A hundred measures of wheat. And he said unto him, Take your bill, and write fourscore.

 **8** And the lord commended the unjust steward, because he had done wisely: for the children of this world are in their generation wiser than the children of light.

 **9** And I say unto you, Make to yourselves friends of the mammon of unrighteousness; that, when ye fail, they may receive you into everlasting habitations.

 **10** He that is faithful in that which is least is faithful also in much: and he that is unjust in the least is unjust also in much.

 **11** If therefore ye have not been faithful in the unrighteous mammon, who will commit to your trust the true riches?

 **12** And if ye have not been faithful in that which is another man's, who shall give you that which is your own?

 **13** No servant can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon.

 **14** And the Pharisees also, who were covetous, heard all these things: and they derided him.

 **15** And he said unto them, Ye are they which justify yourselves before men; but God knows your hearts: for that which is highly esteemed among men is abomination in the sight of God.

 **16** The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presses into it.

 **17** And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail.

 **18** Whosoever puts away his wife, and marries another, commits adultery: and whosoever marries her that is put away from her husband commits adultery.

So what does this mean? The _**"dispensation"**_ (stewardship) of the household of God passed from Old Testament to New Testament. Note it's the same household; it's just something different has come into play here, so therefore the steward is replaced.

Note verse 9. Jesus is talking to his disciples. He tells them "make friends of the mammon of unrighteousness **FOR WHEN YOU FAIL,** **they** may receive you into **everlasting habitations."**

So, who did the 12 primarily preach to post resurrection? Remember Peter was the "apostle to the circumcision". Who was the "apostle to the uncircumcision" (Paul). What happened when the Old Testament system was dismantled? Who absorbed the Jewish believers? (The gentile believers.)

Now what do you suppose the "unrighteous mammon" was as it related to the Old Testament system? The "shadow of things to come". The animal sacrifice system that was about to be dismantled. It was a theocratic political / social system. And because the kingdom of God is not of this world; this is why that system was dismantled.

Note verses 16-18. The law and the prophets were up until John: since that time (the point John came on the scene preaching "repent for the kingdom of God is at hand". Both John and Jesus use the terms "Kingdom of God" and "Kingdom of heaven" interchangeably.) Yet since John, the kingdom is preached. And **EVERY** man presses into it.

It's easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail.

Note that after this; Jesus makes this statement about divorce. Why do you suppose he throws that in here? Because God is "divorcing" Himself from that system. Note the law is still "in effect" because it is what condemns those under it for their sin. (We are all condemned by the moral law; thus the reason we need the Redeemer in the first place.)

So if you "pick up" that system again; you are committing adultery against God with a system He has divorced. Now the first part of that phrase; did God put away His "wife" - the elect? No He didn't. Those who believed, regardless of what side of the cross they lived on, remained attached to Christ.

 **1 Corinthians 9:17 - 18** "For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, _**the stewardship**_ of the gospel is committed unto me.

 **18** What is my reward then? Verily that, when I preach the gospel, I may make the gospel of Christ without charge, that I abuse not my power in the gospel.

Those who "stewarded" the Old Testament system were supported by it. This is the point about unrighteous greed (And also the point Paul made about having a means of support outside of the church. I.E. Paul made tents for a living.)

 **Ephesians 1:10** **"** That in _**the stewardship**_ of the fulness (sum up) of times (plural - two times - probably 2000 years), He might gather together **in one - all things** in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in Him:"

 **Ephesians 3:2** "If you have heard of _**the stewardship**_ of the grace of God which is given me toward you." (Verse 1 - he is addressing gentiles.)

 **Colossians 1:25** "Whereof I am made a minister, according to _**the stewardship**_ of God which is given to me for you, to fulfill the word of God;"

 **1 Timothy 1:4** "Neither give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than Godly _**stewardship**_ which is in faith: so do."

All these verses _**"the stewardship"**_ (article noun); it's one stewardship that has been transmitted now to a different steward. Paul, being named "the steward" as he who's penned a good chunk of the New Testament. Paul was in the best position to do this because of his education of Old Testament Judaism; having been a Pharisee. Peter and the rest of the 12 were obviously familiar with Judaism, as having lived under its jurisdiction; but Paul was the one who had the educational background to pull all these Scriptures together to be able to explain the Old Testament through the lens of the New.


	5. Chapter 5

**Bible References 3**

 _ **Next - the word "church":**_

Now you've told me several times that the word "church" is not used in reference to the Old Testament. I found in the book of Acts where it is. Now it's not translated "church" except in the King James; but it's the same Greek world _**"ekklessia"**_.

 **Acts 7:38**

 **37** This is that Moses, which said unto the children of Israel, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear.

 **38** This is he, that was in the _**ekklessia**_ (church) in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the mount Sina, and with our fathers: who received the lively oracles to give unto us:

 **39** To whom our fathers would not obey, but thrust him from them, and in their hearts turned back again into Egypt,

Those of "Israel" elect from the foundations of the world have always been part of "the church"; just as those on the New Testament side of the cross are part of God's Israel (those in the promise - redeemed by Christ - the one seed of Abraham being Christ).

 **Next:** Your most recent verses given to me in reference to a statement made in the last collection of Bible passages about what happened to the tribes of Judah and Benjamin at the end of the 1st Century.

Some of the other passages are reference to the tribe of Dan - assuming this is connected to why they are not named in Revelation?

Leviticus 24:11

1 Kings 12:28-29 - (2 gold calves; one placed in Bethel and the other in Dan)

 **Jude:** \- I'm not sure why you quoted that verse? Unless you're accusing me of being a "mocker in the last times who should walk after their own ungodly lusts". LOL But let's go through the book of Jude to see what he's actually talking about.

Verse 3 tells them to "earnestly contend for the faith that was once delivered to the saints."

 **4** For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, **ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness,** and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.

 **5** I will therefore put you in remembrance, though ye once knew this, how that the **Lord, having saved the people out of the land of Egypt, afterward destroyed them that believed not.** _(Interesting reference he makes here.)_

 **6** And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.

 **7** Even as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities about them **in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.**

 _(Those who give the grace of God over to lasciviousness are known by their homosexuality. So unless you are accusing me of being gay - which would be a false accusation - this doesn't apply to me. LOL)_

 **8** Likewise also these filthy dreamers defile the flesh, **despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities.**

 **9** Yet Michael the archangel, when contending with the devil he disputed about the body of Moses, durst not bring against him a railing accusation, but said, The Lord rebuke thee.

 **10** But these speak evil of those things which they know not: **but what they know naturally, as brute beasts, in those things they corrupt themselves.** _(A reference to their homosexuality.)_

 **11** Woe unto them! for they have gone in the way of Cain, and ran greedily after the **error of Balaam for reward** , and perished in the gainsaying of Core.

 _Cain murdered his brother._

 _Balaam who was hired to curse Israel for the king of Moab, but couldn't. Is stated in Revelation that the "doctrine of Balaam"; was teaching Balak to cast a stumbling block before Israel, eat meat sacrificed to idols and commit fornication._

"For we preach Christ crucified; to the Jew a stumbling block and to the Greek foolishness." 1 Corinthians 1:23

 _So could it be, that the failure to preach Christ crucified to the Jews is the "doctrine of Balaam" this verse is speaking of? Is that not what "dispensationalism" is? Don't worry about the Jews because God has another plan for them?_

 **12** These are spots in your feasts of charity, when they feast with you, feeding themselves without fear: clouds they are without water, carried about of winds; trees whose fruit withers, without fruit, twice dead, plucked up by the roots;

 **13** Raging waves of the sea, foaming out their own shame; wandering stars, to whom is reserved the blackness of darkness for ever.

 **14** And Enoch also, the seventh from Adam, prophesied of these, saying, Behold, the Lord cometh with ten thousands of his saints,

 **15** To execute judgment upon all, and to convince all that are ungodly among them of all their ungodly deeds which they have ungodly committed, and of all their hard speeches which ungodly sinners have spoken against him. _(spoken against Jesus Christ)_

 **16** These are murmurers, complainers, walking after their own lusts; and their mouth speaks great swelling words, **having men's persons in admiration because of advantage.**

 _Do some research on the history of Zionism and take a look at all the people linked to this movement who were of wealth and prestige. Then ask yourself about the book of Jude._

 **17** But, beloved, **remember ye the words which were spoken before of the apostles of our Lord Jesus Christ;**

 **18** How that they told you there should be **mockers in the last time,** who should walk after their own ungodly lusts.

 _Who are they mocking? Don't preach to the Jews because they have a separate plan special for them. What did Jesus say though? Go into all the world and preach to every creature. This message is for all nations, because Christ is the only mediator between God and man! So if they fail to preach to the Jew; who are they really mocking? Ehh - Jesus Christ!_

 **Revelation 7:**

 _ **Note verse 9:**_

"After this I beheld, and, lo, a great multitude, **which no man could number, of all nations, and kindreds, and people, and tongues** , stood before the throne, and before the Lamb, clothed with white robes, and palms in their hands;"

 _ **Note verse 14:**_

 **13.** And one of the elders answered, saying unto me, **What are these which are arrayed in white robes? and whence came they?**

 **14** And I said unto him, Sir, thou know. And he said to me, These are **they which came out of great tribulation,** and have washed their robes, and made them white in the blood of the Lamb.

So what is this telling us? Let's take a look at the Greek.

 _ **Verse 9**_ \- "After this I beheld…" Is this connected directly to the 144,000 mentioned above? This Greek word "after" is a bit misleading as an English translation, because this word actually means "in the midst of" or "as part of" (the preceding event). So yes, verse 9 is connected to the verses before it.

So first we have this 144,000 sealed and in accompaniment with this sealing; this great multitude of every nation, kindred, people and tongues appears in heaven. So what this means, is that this appearance in heaven is a result of this sealing.

So, why do we have two different numbers and what appears to be differing of Jew and gentile; yet are talking about the same group of people?

 _ **To answer this question; we have to answer who actually is Israel?**_

In short the answer to that question is; all who are atoned for by Christ are Israel.

Now in some respects Jesus is referred to as "Israel". He was the promised seed (singular) of Abraham. Galatians 3:16

And we know that:

 **6** … For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:

 **7** Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called.

 **8** That is, **They which are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed.** Romans 9

"And if you be Christ's; than you are Abraham's seed and heirs according to the promise." Galatians 3:29

So this is why when we get to Revelation 7, the 144,000 are of a number no man can count and they are of every nation, kindred, peoples and tongues. These are those found in Christ who have been atoned for by Him.

 _ **Some other tidbits from the language of Revelation:**_

"…opened the 5th seal and I saw the **souls** of them that were slain for the word of God…" Revelation 6:9

"….and I saw the **souls** of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had **not worshipped the beast** , neither his image, **neither had received his mark** upon their foreheads, and in their hands; and **they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.** Revelation 20:4

Now if I'm not mistaken; the dispensationalists say the 1000 year reign comes after the final resurrection. Yet in this passage, it is very clear that these are **souls** living and reigning with Christ 1000 years, not bodies.

And this is accurately translated. I looked it up. It is the word soul, (psychas) not the word body (ptoma/soma=corpse), (soma/somatos=living person's body).


End file.
